Transition Between Chords Going Up The Scale Or Down?

[d0082]

I couldn't figure out how to move my original post in another (probably less-fitting) forum subcategory, but this one seems to be much more suited for the question I have...

 

My question is, when going from, say, a "I" chord to a "V" chord (let's assume I'm in the key of C, so from "C-chord" to "G-chord") on a piano, am I supposed to be going down the keyboard, up the keyboard, does it just depend on my own preference for the song, or am I just missing the boat somewhere else in even asking this question?

 

I am asking this with respect to the "home" chord ("I", or "C")... So, say my progression follows the generic "I"-->"V"-->"vi"-->"IV" (C-->G-->am-->F) pattern, I'm asking whether "V","vi",and "IV" should A) all be below the "I" chord on the scale, B.) when played on the piano, C) should all be above the "I" chord, some combination, or D) "it depends."

 

To elaborate, from some basic piano training (it wasn't focused on songwriting, but just on learning piano, which typically meant memorizing how to play classical songs, etc), I had come under the assumption that in going from a "I" chord to a "V" chord, I should really just be playing what I now know are the inverted forms of the chords in my progression to minimize / make easier the movement of my hand(s).

 

For example, in going from a "I" chord to a "V" chord (C-chord to G-chord), I had assumed I should just be playing "C-E-G" for the "I", then transition to the inverted "V" (V^6, "five-six"), or "B-D-G", because that would greatly minimize the motion required for my hand.

 

But, just recently, I was reading through a good book I found on music theory that really gets into what I'll call "songwriting theory", and it seemed to be stating that there is a HUGE difference between playing "I" --> "V", verus playing "I" --> "V^6"... not that you would never play "I" --> "V^6", but it seemed that it was pretty atypical vs. most songs out there (i.e. on the radio).

 

Thus (assuming what I said above is generally right and makes sense), you can see the predicament I'm in, and hence, the stupid question: If I am indeed supposed to [generally] be going from "I" --> "V" instead of --> "V^6", do I go UP the keyboard (i.e. same octave) from the C-chord to the G-chord or DOWN the keyboard (down an octave) from the C-chord to the G-chord? As I said, I had previously assumed (I think, incorrectly) that the answer to this question was "stay in the same place", and just invert the next chord (and the chord after that, etc) to minimize hand movement required from one chord to the next.

 

Any help from any of you music theory / piano / "songwriting theory" experts out there would be GREATLY appreciated!

 

Thanks,

Dan

Edited April 4, 2013 by d0082

[d0082]

Hi Tom,

 

Thanks a lot- really appreciate your response, and taking the time to explain in the full manner that it (in hindsight) needed to be explained! Your answer helps a lot- especially the part about going from a I chord DOWN to a V chord changing the span, which was definitely something I had not even considered, but seems to be a critical detail in the answer. Similarly, the change in the texture / tonal effect from inverting the chords is a great point.

 

While I probably don't know enough to "know what I don't know", so to speak, at this point, I'll take your word that these aren't the types of topics to be answered quickly in an online forum. I'm going to keep trying to hunt down some good books to read on the subject, and hopefully that will help fill out my knowledge a lot more so I don't end up in over my head.

 

Thanks again for taking the time to answer,

Dan

[d0082]

By the way, I tracked down your "I've Learned To Love The Rain" song... great stuff!

 

And I'm incredibly jealous of this.

[Guest]

...when going from, say, a "I" chord to a "V" chord (let's assume I'm in the key of C, so from "C-chord" to "G-chord") on a piano, am I supposed to be going down the keyboard, up the keyboard, does it just depend on my own preference for the song

 

[snip]

 

Any help from any of you music theory / piano / "songwriting theory" experts out there would be GREATLY appreciated!

Hi, Dan...

 

Admittedly, I only skimmed your query but I'm going to toss my quick 2¢ at you...

 

Whether your move up from I - V or down... That's entirely up in the air. What sounds best to you? Who says it should pass through any midway chords? Might it sound better jumping directly to the I (or V)? What if you didn't resolve it, and lingered on V for a bit longer? Or you might discover something more interesting by going to a different chord altogether!

 

There's no "right" way; there's only the best way for you and your song.

 

And be careful about taking the advice of a "theory expert"... How many theory experts can you name who have ever written a hit song? The most successful songwriter since the harnessing of electricity ---Paul McCartney--- doesn't read music, and he's connected I chords to V chords in every manner you can imagine, and then some.

 

Let melody lead you. Walk away from your piano or guitar, don't consider theory or what you're "supposed" to do, and write from your HEART. Your songs will be better ---and more interesting--- for it. 

[Guest]

I wanted to quickly point something out....mostly for less knowledgable members.

Having a knowledge of music theory and being a competent reader of sheet music are not the same thing....not at all! 

Chances are that Skylark understands the difference. But, when I read through his response, it seemed to me he was implying that the 2 were synomous. Just like in school, reading and comprehension are seperate skills. Reading does not equate to understanding! Simply wanted to make that point.

 

If anyone is interested in exploring the subject further, I did a blog article a while back discussing it at length. Here's the link

http://forums.songstuff.com/blog/75/entry-943-musical-reading-vs-comprehension/

 

Tom

Of course Tom is absolutely correct about this. In saying that McCartney doesn't read music I was meaning that he has essentially no "book knowledge" at all. It wasn't the best way I could've said it, just what popped out at the moment. (I did say that I had only "skimmed" and that it was my "quick 2¢"...  )

 

Along the same lines, I hope no one ---least of all Tom himself--- thinks I'm at odds with his comments on the subject. To the contrary, I agree with everything he's written here.

[chased]

Tom, sorry this is off-topic but well done to you and the other moderators this week, putting yourself out there to stand up for this whole community isn't easy and you did a great job

Edited June 16, 2013 by chased

[Rudi]

It doesnt matter which way you go. Try a variety of ways and let your ears decide.

 

Music only has rules for teaching. After a while they become guidelines. After a longer while they should disappear altogether.

[TapperMike]

It doesnt matter which way you go. Try a variety of ways and let your ears decide.

 

Music only has rules for teaching. After a while they become guidelines. After a longer while they should disappear altogether.

 

 

I know a classical teacher who needs to read this but he is so obsessed with the structured course material he's trying to turn theory into a religion. To him anything past the 18th century music theory is suspect at best heresy at worst.